Paul, an apostle of Christ Jesus by the will of God,
To the saints who are in Ephesus, and are faithful in Christ Jesus:
Grace to you and peace from God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ.
Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who has blessed us in Christ with every spiritual blessing in the heavenly places, even as he chose us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and blameless before him. In love he predestined us for adoption as sons through Jesus Christ, according to the purpose of his will, to the praise of his glorious grace, with which he has blessed us in the Beloved. In him we have redemption through his blood, the forgiveness of our trespasses, according to the riches of his grace, which he lavished upon us, in all wisdom and insight making known to us the mystery of his will, according to his purpose, which he set forth in Christ as a plan for the fullness of time, to unite all things in him, things in heaven and things on earth.
In him we have obtained an inheritance, having been predestined according to the purpose of him who works all things according to the counsel of his will, so that we who were the first to hope in Christ might be to the praise of his glory. In him you also, when you heard the word of truth, the gospel of your salvation, and believed in him, were sealed with the promised Holy Spirit, who is the guarantee[d] of our inheritance until we acquire possession of it, to the praise of his glory.
Ephesians 1:1-14
I should jump to something new; however, it's probably best to remain where my thoughts have been lately. I have recently heard someone tell me that when Ephesians 1 refers to predestination, it means a kind of predestination that is for all people. Though, I may have misinterpreted what they meant, this has still been stuck in my mind. This post is not meant to be exhaustive, but simply a few thoughts I have been mulling over with regards to this...
So, what is Ephesians 1 referring to with regards to this?
The word "predestination" occurs twice here in Ephesians 1, in verse 5 and verse 11.
he predestined us[b] for adoption as sons through Jesus Christ, according to the purpose of his will,
Ephesians 1:5
In him we have obtained an inheritance, having been predestined according to the purpose of him who works all things according to the counsel of his will,
Ephesians 1:11
I thought it might also be helpful to quickly look at a few definitions I found online for "predestination".
(as a doctrine in Christian theology) the divine foreordaining of all that will happen, especially with regard to the salvation of some and not others. It has been particularly associated with the teachings of St. Augustine of Hippo and of Calvin.
the doctrine that God in consequence of his foreknowledge of all events infallibly guides those who are destined for salvation1.
First of all, the definitions are closely tied with salvation, and I think that is rightly so. So, if predestination is referring to all people, then either it doesn't refer to salvation, or God "fails" in what he predestines.
It certainly refers to salvation. Looking back at verse 5, it says "he predestined us for adoption as sons through Jesus Christ". When talking about adoption here, it is referring to salvation. In case you weren't sure, you can take a quick look over at Galatians 4
I mean that the heir, as long as he is a child, is no different from a slave, though he is the owner of everything, but he is under guardians and managers until the date set by his father. In the same way we also, when we were children, were enslaved to the elementary principles of the world. But when the fullness of time had come, God sent forth his Son, born of woman, born under the law, to redeem those who were under the law, so that we might receive adoption as sons. And because you are sons, God has sent the Spirit of his Son into our hearts, crying, “Abba! Father!” So you are no longer a slave, but a son, and if a son, then an heir through God.
Galatians 4:1-7
Here in Galatians, redemption (through Christ) is done "so that" you could be adopted. I think it's clearly showing a close relation between adoption and salvation. Though it is a different book, it is still a letter by Paul, so I don't think it's straying too far away.
2.
The second option is that God "fails". Another way of looking at this is that people can lose their salvation. If predestination refers to salvation and if predestination refers to all people here in Ephesians 1, then how can it be true if not all are saved? In case you weren't convinced that not all are saved, the first that comes to my mind is how the gate is wide. I'm sure that there are better passages, but this one works I think.
“Enter by the narrow gate. For the gate is wide and the way is easy that leads to destruction, and those who enter by it are many. For the gate is narrow and the way is hard that leads to life, and those who find it are few.
Matthew 7:13-14
Moving on, we have to deal with whether or not people can lose their salvation. I don't think that this is the case. First of all, if that were true, then wouldn't God's word not come to pass? As in, something God has foreordained didn't come true in the end. This does not represent the character of God since none can stay his hand. But even putting that aside, a verse comes to mind with regards to people not losing their salvation.
They went out from us, but they were not of us; for if they had been of us, they would have continued with us. But they went out, that it might become plain that they all are not of us.
1 John 2:19
Some may argue that they have friends or family who used to be on fire for God, but they walked away. They point to this as a clear example of how one can lose their salvation. However, looking to the book of 1 John, we see that this example is a case of someone who never truly was saved.
Turning our attention back to Ephesians 1, I think it is plain to see that it is simply directed towards believers. It is addressed "to the saints who are in Ephesus, and are faithful in Christ Jesus" (v1). His intended audience are also those who have been "sealed with the promised Holy Spirit" (v13). Paul sometimes writes using the "us" or "we", of whom he says "In him we have redemption through his blood, the forgiveness of our trespasses," (v7). It is fairly clear that he is talking to believers and thus I think his intention for talking about predestination is referring to believers, not everyone.
Now, one last thing has to do with another objection. The person with the initial objection brought up how God desires that all men be saved. This is true and is found in 2 Peter. However, even though God desires that all men be saved, it doesn't mean that all men are actually saved. Actually, if you read through 2 Peter 3, you will realize that it talks about judgment day. In particular, there are references to "destruction of the ungodly" (v7). Even in 2 Peter, it is still assumed that there will be the destruction of the ungodly. This means that there will be some who are not saved and thus predestination and salvation is not applied to all people.