Ephesians 1:15-16

For this reason, because I have heard of your faith in the Lord Jesus and your love toward all the saints, I do not cease to give thanks for you, remembering you in my prayers

-Ephesians 1:15-16

Paul begins by telling his readers "I do not cease to give thanks for you".  Why does Paul say such a thing?  Well, back up and we'll see in the previous verse that Paul tells us the reason, "because I have heard of your faith in the Lord Jesus and your love toward all the saints".  Merely hearing about their faith and love is what spurs Paul to ceaselessly be thankful for them.  That is pretty cool to say the least.  What Paul cares about is very important and it is important for us to note to make us aware of the things that we are thankful for.  Are we thankful for the faith and love of others?  Yes, Paul points out specifically that the kind of faith and love he is thankful for is the kind that is directed "toward all the saints".  I guess this is the kind of way a community of believers should be and it's the kind of thing that would be good to be excited and thankful for.

Ephesians 1:13-14

In him you also, when you heard the word of truth, the gospel of your salvation, and believed in him, were sealed with the promised Holy Spirit, 14 who is the guarantee of our inheritance until we acquire possession of it, to the praise of his glory.

-Ephesians 1:13-14

In verses 11 and 12, Paul is talking about "we who were the first to hope in Christ".  NLT translates it as "we Jews who were the first to trust in Christ".  Now, in contrast, verse 13 moves on to talk about "you".  His readers, "the saints who are in Ephesus" are the "you" he is now talking about which is different from "we who were the first to hope in Christ".  Paul is now saying to the saints in Ephesus that they "were sealed with the promised Holy Spirit".  This, he tells them, happened "when you heard the word of truth", "and believed in him".  This gives us some insight into what happens when we first hear and believe.  When people hear and believe, they are "sealed with the promised Holy Spirit".  I'm assuming this happens to all because Paul says "you also".  This that he is describing happened to "we who were the first to hope in Christ".  I guess Paul wanted to encourage them and remind them of what happened to them and that it is normal among believers.

Paul goes on to talk about the Holy Spirit"  He is "the guarantee of our inheritance until we aquire position of it".  Back in verse 11, Paul is talking about "we who were the first to hope in Christ" and they "have obtained an inheritance".  When Paul addresses "you" in verse 13, I think what he is talking about this inheritance.  It is also rolled up in what "also" happened to them, which is what happened when they heard and believed.  When we hear and believe, we obtain an inheritance.  This inheritance is sealed with the promised Holy Spirit.

Once again, at the very end of this, we find a familiar phrase, "to the praise of his glory".  All this, the inheritance and sealing with the Holy Spirit ultimately is for God's glory.  We may certainly receive an amazing blessing in inheritance and such, but God gets all the glory.  All praise be to God.

Ephesians 1:11-12

In him we have obtained an inheritance, having been predestined according to the purpose of him who works all things according to the counsel of his will, so that we who were the first to hope in Christ might be to the praise of his glory.
-Ephesians 1:11-12

I feel like Paul is just repeating himself and saying the same things over and over again.  Paul tells us that "we have obtained an inheritance".  This inheritance is in him.  Who is "him" this time?  I still find it confusing, but I'm going to go with God the Father here.  So, what is this inheritance?  He tell us that it is our having been "predestined according to the purpose of him who works all things according to the counsel of his will,".  He decided and chose to predestine us and that is our inheritance.  Why is that good?  Well, we are predestined for "adoption as sons through Jesus Christ" as Paul tells us earlier.  We were also told that he chose us long time ago for the purpose of us being "holy and blameless before him".  These are good things because we know what we were or what we are without this, "and you were dead in your trespasses and sins..." which we'll read later in Ephesians 2.

So, why does God do this?  Why did he choose to give us an inheritance in being predestined?  Looking at verse 12, we see that it's "so that we who were the first to hope in Christ might be to the praise of his glory".  Since he's talking about "first to hope in Christ", I'm assuming that he's now talking about the first converts.  NLT interprets this to say "we Jews who were the first to trust in Christ".  Looking at this now, we realize that what was said earlier here about verse 11 really is only talking about those "first to hope in Christ" (so, not every believer).  In any case, we see a phrase Paul used earlier "to the praise of his glory".  The reason for God doing this is for his glory.  Once again we see God ultimately being for himself and his glory.  Why does he do things?  Yes, he loves us and is working for the good of those who love him.  However, as much as that is true, a reason behind all of this is God's glorifying of himself.

Ephesians 1:8-10

which he lavished upon us, in all wisdom and insight making known to us the mystery of his will, according to his purpose, which he set forth in Christ as a plan for the fullness of time, to unite all things in him, things in heaven and things on earth.

-Ephesians1:8-10

The riches of his grace have been lavished upon us.  Do you know what "lavish" means?  I figured I'd look it up to make sure I didn't get it wrong, "bestow something in generous or extravagant quantities upon".  How cool is that?  The riches of his grace have been lavished upon us.  NLT uses the word "showered".  It makes me want to sit back, ponder and sit in amazement of our God.  Praise be to God.

Paul moves on to talk about God "making known to us the mystery of his will".  This is done "in all wisdom and insight", though it's arguably connected to the previous thought.  What is this that he made known to us?  Paul explains this later in Chapter 3 when he talks about the Mystery.  It's essentially the gospel, the good news.  We see even here that this mystery of his will "he set forth in Christ".  It has to do with Christ further points us to it being the gospel.

We see yet again something about God's purpose, "according to his purpose".  God chooses and decides what he is going to do, it is according to what he wants to do.  AMP puts it, "according to his good pleasure".  God was pleased to do this.  It made me think of the word "pleased", which I remember reading... Galatians.  

But when he who had set me apart before I was born, and who called me by his grace, was pleased to reveal his Son to me, in order that I might preach him among the Gentiles

-Galatians 1:15-16a

It pleased God to reveal his son to Paul.  Similarly, I think Paul is saying here in Ephesians that God was pleased to reveal the mystery of his will to us.

There are a few remaining things.  The plan is to unite all things in him.  Here, him is referring to Christ.  The purpose of all these things is to unite all things in Jesus.  Christ will be exalted and Christ will be praised.  It is all for his glory.  This is a good thing and there's nothing wrong with God doing things for his glory.  He "who has blessed us in Christ with every spiritual blessing in the heavenly places", choosing us, predestined us, adopted us, and lavished us with the riches of his grace, it is him that I exalt.

Ephesians 1:7

In him we have redemption through his blood, the forgiveness of our trespasses, according to the riches of his grace,

-Ephesians 1:7

There are two references to "him" in this verse, who who are they referring to?  I think it's obvious that it can either be God the Father or Jesus (or both?).  NLT seems to interpret the first "him" as God the Father, and the second "him" as Jesus.  AMP also interprets the second "him" as Jesus.  I think that because Paul is still mainly talking about God the Father, the first "him" is referring to God the Father.  For the second "him", it is referring to his blood, so I think it's referring to Jesus.  Though I guess I goofed up because the second "him" is actually the word "his".  In any case, I think you know what I mean.  So, I think the first is referring to God the Father and the second is referring to Jesus.

In God the Father we have redemption through Jesus' blood.  Now, what that means is "the forgiveness of our trespasses".  So, what "redemption through his blood" means is "the forgiveness of our trespasses".  It is by Jesus' blood that we are forgiven for our wrongdoing.

The last thing is the phrase at the end, "according to the riches of his grace".  Our redemption, the forgiveness of our trespasses, is "according to the riches of his grace".  This means that in some way we are forgiven by or because of or by the magnitude or merit of God's grace.  God is so rich in grace and it is by the richness of his grace that we are redeemed.  This also reminds us that it is not according to works, but grace.  God's free, unmerited favor is what our redemption is according to.  Praise God for the riches of his grace.

Ephesians 1:6

to the praise of his glorious grace, with which he has blessed us in the Beloved.

-Ephesians 1:6

I find myself a little confused by this verse at first.  What does " to the praise of his glorious grace" mean?  I think NLT helps for my understanding of this verse, "So we praise God for the glorious grace he has poured out on us who belong to his dear Son".  So, as a result of what Paul has just said, we praise God for his glorious grace.  Because God has "predestined us for adoption as sons through Jesus Christ", we praise him for God's grace.  This that God has done for us is God's grace, "which he so freely bestowed on us in the Beloved" as it says in AMP.  We didn't work or earn any of this.  God chose according to his will to do this for us, and for that we're praising.  One last thing to point out is the word at the end, "Beloved".  This is referring to Jesus, "Beloved [His Son, Jesus Christ]" as we see from AMP.  It is in Jesus that we are blessed, just as the last verse said that we are predestined for adoption through Jesus Christ.  God chose to have Jesus be the instrument of his grace through which and in whom we have been blessed.  "So we praise God for the glorious grace he has poured out on us", "which He so freely bestowed on us in the Beloved [His Son, Jesus Christ]".  Sure, I mashed two different translations together, but I didn't like how NLT kept out the last part, or rather how they interpreted it differently.

Update:
I was listening to Matt Chandler's sermon at Code Orange and he was going over this verse.  His interpretation of this passage is that "to the praise of his glorious grace" means that the underlying meaning for it all is for God's glory.  I guess that fits in quite well and it's very similar to what Paul says earlier in this passage.  Hm...