Romans 3:3

What if some did not have faith? Will their lack of faith nullify God's faithfulness?

(v3, NIV)

In the last chapter, Paul was talking about Jews and how they are hypocrites. Even though they boast in circumcision, it is undone by the breaking of the law. They are even being condemned by the Gentiles who not having the law fulfill the requirements of the law. If Paul is saying that there isn't really an advantage of being a Jew here, how does that jive with what he says in chapter 3? Paul says at the beginning of chapter three that Jews have an advantage in that they were entrusted with the words of God. So they cry "foul" because it seems as though Paul has a contradiction. If Jews no long have an advantage and can be judged according to Paul's gospel, how is God still faithful to his chosen people? They seem to say that God will no longer be faithful if he chooses to judge his people. By tackling this objection, Paul poses back to them the possibility that some did not have faith. It's a "so what" kind of answer. So what if some do not have faith and do not believe? Their unbelief does not cause God to be unfaithful.