Is this blessedness only for the circumcised, or also for the uncircumcised? We have been saying that Abraham’s faith was credited to him as righteousness.
(v9, NIV)
Now the focus is directed towards Abraham. This blessing spoken of by David is not only for the circumcised. If that were the case, then Abraham would be exempt from the blessing before he was circumcised. However, blessings to Abraham from God were before he was circumcised. Using Abraham's example, which many Jews boasted in, Paul points out that the crediting of righteousness to Abraham was by faith. This is yet another point in the stack in Paul's argument against works for righteousness and towards faith crediting righteousness.
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